🔥 14th JPSC Civil Services Online Courses & Test Series Live!

THE HINDU Editorial Analysis for Today – UPSC | BPSC | JPSC

📅 13 Aug, 2026 📁 News-Analysis

Current Affairs for JPSC | BPSC | UPSC

JHARKHAND PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (JPSC) 


1. FCRA (Amendment) Bill, 2026 referred to JPC

. Background:

  • FCRA, 2010 regulates foreign contributions to associations, NGOs.
  • 2020 amendments: barred sub-granting of foreign funds even to FCRA-registered entities; cut administrative expense cap from 50% to 20%; mandated Aadhaar for office bearers; State Bank of India, Delhi branch, as the sole receiving bank.
  • JPC (Joint Parliamentary Committee): a temporary committee formed for detailed scrutiny of a specific Bill; distinct from Standing Committees (permanent, subject-wise). Content: Lok Sabha referred the FCRA Amendment Bill 2026 to a 31-member JPC (21 from LS nominated by Speaker, 10 from RS nominated by Chairman), amid Opposition protests that it targets minority-run NGOs. The Bill creates a “designated authority” to manage/dispose of assets of an NGO whose FCRA licence is cancelled, refused renewal, or lapses. Report due by the first week of Winter Session. Trigger for softening stance: coordinated NGO appeals, Christian group meetings with Amit Shah, and a US Congressman’s public criticism.

2. Retail Inflation — 19-month high

Background

  • CPI (Consumer Price Index) — combined (rural+urban) index; released monthly by MoSPI; new base year updated to 2024 in the revised series (from 2012 base).
  • RBI’s flexible inflation target: 4% (+/- 2%) under CPI-based framework (post-2016 MPC Act amendment).
  • Food & beverages have the highest weight in CPI basket (~46%). Content: CPI inflation rose to 4.45% in July 2026 (from 4.38% in June) — a 19-month high — driven by food inflation rising to 5.52% (from 5.32%). Vegetable prices (onion, garlic, ginger) spiked while potato/tomato deflated. Health, recreation segments saw inflation ease. Transport/restaurant inflation rose due to fuel costs linked to the West Asia conflict.

3. Justice Yashwant Varma — Charges “Proved”

Background:

  • Judges can be removed only via Article 124(4)/218 — motion supported by special majority in both Houses, following a Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 committee finding of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity.”
  • Inquiry Committee under the Act: comprises a SC judge, a HC Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist.
  • A judge’s resignation before impeachment does not automatically end/invalidate a statutory inquiry once evidence has substantially come on record (this SC principle reaffirmed today). Content: The 3-member panel (Justice Aravind Kumar, Justice Shree Chandrashekhar, advocate B.V. Acharya) found all three charges against former Delhi HC judge Yashwant Varma “proved” over the burnt-currency discovery at his residence (March 2025). His explanations were termed “evasive and unsatisfactory.” Nearly 200 MPs had moved a removal motion; Varma has resigned but the resignation hasn’t been formally notified.

4. Delimitation & Women’s Reservation — T.N. Assembly Resolution

Background

  • Article 82: Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after each Census to readjust Lok Sabha seats.
  • 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seat numbers based on 1971 Census till 2000; 84th Amendment (2001) extended freeze to 2026 (i.e., first Census after 2026, effectively 2031).
  • Women’s Reservation Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), 2023: reserves 33% of LS/State Assembly seats for women, but implementation is linked to delimitation exercise post-Census.
  • Current LS strength: 543 seats (last fixed per 1971 Census via 1976 freeze). Content: T.N. Assembly passed a resolution urging the Centre to freeze LS seats permanently at 543 and retain the current inter-State seat-distribution ratio and the LS:RS ratio of 2.2:1, while implementing 33% women’s reservation from the 2029 elections based on the existing 543-seat structure — bypassing delimitation-linked implementation. AIADMK, PMK, DMDK, BJP opposed the resolution; DMK and others supported it.

5. Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026

Background

  • Entry 54, Union List: regulation of mines/mineral development declared by Parliament to be expedient in public interest — gives Centre primacy over minerals (per MMDR Act, 1957).
  • 2024 SC judgment (Mineral Area Development Authority case) had upheld States’ power to levy cess/tax on mineral rights — a background tension this Bill responds to. Content: Passed by Lok Sabha amid Opposition protests (no debate); prevents State governments from imposing additional taxes/cesses/levies on mineral rights, giving the Centre greater control over mineral-laden land regulation. Coal & Mines Minister G. Kishan Reddy cited divergent state fiscal levies creating uncertainty, raising costs, and encouraging imports.

6. UPI MDR Charge — Making UPI Self-Sustaining

Background

  • MDR (Merchant Discount Rate): fee charged to merchants for processing digital payments; UPI/RuPay debit transactions were made MDR-free in 2020 to boost adoption.
  • Incentive scheme: Centre partially reimburses banks/payment processors for costs of low-value UPI transactions at small merchants. Content: Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance flagged that current UPI subsidy support (₹2,000 crore budgeted) covers barely 11% of the industry’s actual operational cost (estimated ₹20,700 crore) — threatening investment in cybersecurity/infrastructure. Govt is exploring: (i) restoring MDR on certain high-value transactions/large merchants, or (ii) a “tiered incentive structure” to phase out government support gradually.

7. SC on Police Custody under BNSS — Section 187(2)

Background:

  • BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita), 2023 replaced CrPC, 1973 (effective July 2024).
  • Old CrPC S.167: police custody could be sought only within the first 15 days of the total permissible remand period (60/90 days).
  • New BNSS S.187(2): police custody (up to 15 days total) can now be sought in parts, at any time within the first 40 days (offences punishable up to 10 yrs) or 60 days (other offences) of the total detention period — a significant enlargement of investigative power.
  • Default bail: if chargesheet isn’t filed within 60/90 days, accused is entitled to bail as a matter of right. Content: SC (State of A.P. vs Suda Suresh Veera Venkata Naga Raju) held Section 187(2) enlarges the window (not the total quantum, capped at 15 days) during which police custody can be sought — a magistrate cannot impose an absolute non-extendable custody cut-off beyond the initial 15 days. SC also clarified BNSS S.38 (right to meet advocate during interrogation) doesn’t mean continuous physical presence of a lawyer throughout interrogation.

8. Shiv Sena Split Case — Tenth Schedule

Background

  • Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), added by 52nd Amendment (1985); the “split” defense was removed by the 91st Amendment (2003) — now only “merger” (2/3rd majority) is a valid defence against disqualification.
  • Para 15, Tenth Schedule/ECI (Symbols) Order, 1968: ECI adjudicates disputes over party name/symbol when a party splits, based on which faction has majority support in the legislature and organisational wings. Content: SC (Constitution Bench) examining whether a split originating in the legislature party (2022 Eknath Shinde rebellion) can be considered to have percolated into the primary organisational membership — relevant to whether ECI’s Feb 2023 order recognising the Shinde faction as the “real” Shiv Sena was valid. Hearing continues; verdict reserved for later hearing.

9. E20 Ethanol Blending — Sustainability Explainer

Background:

  • National Policy on Biofuels (2018, amended 2022) advanced the 20% ethanol-blending (E20) target from 2030 to 2025-26.
  • Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme: aims to substitute crude oil imports, cut forex outgo, support sugarcane/foodgrain farmers.
  • BS-VI Phase 2 (RDE) norms, effective April 2023: mandated E20-compatible vehicle manufacturing. Content: India targets 10-11 billion litres of ethanol for 20% blending; distillery capacity now 18-20 billion litres (500 distilleries). Feedstock mix: maize 45%, FCI rice ~22%, sugarcane juice 16%, B-heavy molasses ~10%. Vehicles made after April 2023 are E20-compatible (~23% of India’s petrol fleet); older ~240 million vehicles (E5/E10-designed) risk fuel-system corrosion, mileage loss. Government claims ~₹2 lakh crore forex savings and ~32 million tonnes crude oil substitution so far.

10. India-China Border — “Generally Stable”

Background

  • Working Mechanism for Consultation & Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC) — established 2012, handles border-management dialogue below the Special Representatives level.
  • LAC (Line of Actual Control): the de facto India-China border, not mutually demarcated, leading to differing perceptions and patrol overlaps. Content: China’s MEA spokesperson called the border situation “generally stable” despite reports of PLA troops crossing the LAC at Pukar La and Ollo (Taksing circle, Upper Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh). The 36th WMCC meeting was held last week; both sides agreed to maintain communication via diplomatic/military channels.

PART 3: STATIC CONCEPT LINKAGES (Quick Revision)

Current EventLinked Static Concept
FCRA JPC referralTypes of Parliamentary Committees; Ad hoc vs Standing
Justice Varma caseJudges (Inquiry) Act 1968; Art. 124(4), 218; In-house procedure (1999)
Delimitation resolutionArt. 82, 170; 42nd & 84th/87th Amendments; Women’s Reservation Act 2023
MMDR Amendment BillEntry 54 (Union List); 2024 MADA SC judgment on State mineral taxation
BNSS police custodyCrPC S.167 vs BNSS S.187; Default/statutory bail
Shiv Sena caseTenth Schedule; 91st Amendment; ECI Symbols Order 1968
E20 pushNational Policy on Biofuels 2018/2022; BS-VI RDE Phase 2
NCSC de-reservationArt. 338A (NCSC); reservation exceptions in government posts
Nicobar/Shompen issuePVTGs (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups); Forest Rights Act 2006
Demolition/rehabilitation SC caseArt. 21 — Right to shelter (Olga Tellis precedent lineage)

MCQs (Prelims )

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968:

  1. The Inquiry Committee constituted under the Act must comprise a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist.
  2. A judge’s resignation automatically terminates a statutory inquiry initiated under the Act, regardless of the stage of proceedings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) — Statement 2 is incorrect; the Supreme Court held that resignation does not end the inquiry once evidence has substantially come on record.


Q2. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:

  1. It proposes creation of a “designated authority” to manage or dispose of assets built using foreign contributions when an NGO’s FCRA registration is cancelled or lapses.
  2. The Bill has been referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee comprising members only from the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) — The JPC has 21 LS + 10 RS members.


Q3. Which of the following changes were introduced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, as compared to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

  1. Police custody can now be sought in parts within the first 40 or 60 days of detention, instead of being confined to the first 15 days alone.
  2. The right to meet an advocate during interrogation now guarantees the advocate’s continuous physical presence throughout interrogation.

Select the correct answer: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)


Q4. The “freezing” of the number of Lok Sabha seats at 543 is currently tied to which of the following constitutional amendments? (a) 42nd Amendment and 84th Amendment (b) 73rd Amendment and 74th Amendment (c) 91st Amendment and 97th Amendment (d) 61st Amendment and 88th Amendment

Answer: (a)


Q5. Consider the following statements about the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR):

  1. MDR on UPI and RuPay debit card transactions was made zero in 2020 to promote digital payments.
  2. The Union government currently reimburses payment processors for the full operational cost of processing low-value UPI transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) — Reimbursement covers only about 11% of actual costs per the report.


Q6. With reference to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), consider the following statements:

  1. The Shompen of Great Nicobar Island are classified as a PVTG.
  2. PVTGs are identified based on criteria including pre-agricultural level of technology, low literacy, and declining/stagnant population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)


Q7. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme’s E20 target is associated with which of the following?

  1. National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 (as amended in 2022)
  2. Vehicles manufactured after April 2023, under BS-VI Phase 2 (RDE) norms, are factory-engineered to be E20-compatible.

Select the correct answer: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)


Q8. Which entry of the Seventh Schedule empowers Parliament to regulate mines and mineral development in the public interest, forming the basis of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act? (a) Entry 23, State List (b) Entry 54, Union List (c) Entry 17, Concurrent List (d) Entry 6, Union List

Answer: (b)


Q9. With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. The “split” defence against disqualification for defection was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
  2. Currently, only a “merger” involving at least two-thirds of a legislative party’s members is a valid defence against disqualification.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c)


Q10. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI):

  1. Food and beverages carry the single largest weight in the CPI (Combined) basket.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India’s inflation target under the flexible inflation targeting framework is 4%, with a tolerance band of +/- 2%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)


← Back to Daily MCQs